Arsenal and Manchester United are monitoring former Chelsea star Tammy Abraham, according to a fresh report.
The Gunners have been in electric form this season. They currently sit top of the Premier League table, some five points clear of last season’s champions Manchester City.
However, an injury to £45million summer signing Gabriel Jesus has seen them severely depleted in attack, with Eddie Nketiah the club’s only senior No.9 available. As has been widely reported, the club have identified Ukrainian winger Mykhailo Mudryk as their priority target in January and have already seen two bids, worth up to £62million, rejected for the 22-year-old.
However, the table toppers may also pursue a deal for an out-on-out striker.
Similarly, United only have the injury-prone Anthony Martial and the in-form Marcus Rashford capable of playing the central striker role, since the acrimonious departure of Cristiano Ronaldo.
It appears the two clubs are both monitoring England striker Abraham, who was once labelled by Pat Nevin as “the next Didier Drogba”.
Arsenal and United linked to Abraham
According to Repubblica, United and Arsenal are both monitoring Abraham’s situation at Roma.
The striker moved to Italy from Chelsea in 2021 and went on to have one of the best goal-scoring seasons of his career.
The 25-year-old netted some 27 goals in all competitions as Jose Mourinho’s side went on to win the Europa Conference League.
However this season the striker has been in stuttering form, having scored just three goals. He missed out on the England World Cup squad in the process.
Both clubs are also thought to be battling it out for Atletico Madrid star Joao Felix.
The relationship between Atletico Madrid manager Diego Simeone and the Portugal star has broken down completely, with the club’s £113million signing likely to leave the Spanish capital this January.
Both the Gunners and Red Devils have been offered the 23-year-old on loan.
